r/LegalAdviceEurope

(posted on r/LegalAdviceUK and they told me to post here).

Sorry if this is all over the place, I'm still processing a recent phone call from my mum and I don't really know where else to ask this.

My mum is 74, she retired to the south of Spain in 2020. Pretty much since she moved there she's had a local Spanish woman coming round 3 times a week to help with bits around the house, light cleaning, help with the weekly shop, some cooking.

Mum's been paying her roughly €400 a month in cash with contract or written agreement, nothing declared to anyone on either side as far as I know. It was just one of those informal arrangements that felt normal at the time and nobody questioned it.

Early this month the woman slipped on the kitchen tiles at mum's place and broke her wrist quite badly. Mum felt terrible, helped her get to the hospital, thought that was the end of it.

Then saturday mum rings me absolutely panicking because she's received an official looking letter in Spanish that she couldn't read. I got someone to translate it and it references something called the Estatuto de los Trabajadores and mentions an inspection from the labour authority, I think it's called the Inspección de Trabajo.

From what I can gather the woman has filed some kind of formal complaint or claim.

The bit that's really scaring me is this, the cash mum has been paying this woman with comes from a UK bank account that's jointly in both our names. Mum added me to the account so I could help manage her bills and transfer money over when she needed it, it was purely practical.

But now I'm terrified that because my name is on the account those payments came from, I could somehow be considered jointly liable or an employer or whatever the Spanish equivalent is. I don't even live in Spain, I've been to visit mum 3 or 4 times total.

I know mum probably should have done this properly from the start but she had no idea there were rules around this kind of thing, she just thought she was paying a neighbour for some help.

Does Spanish employment law apply here even though mum is a British citizen? Is there any realistic chance I get dragged into this personally because of the joint account?

And should mum respond to this letter or get a lawyer first, because part of me thinks responding without advice could make everything worse.

Hi, this is a complicated situation, but I'll try to keep it brief as possible. There's me, in an EU country with a student visa on my American passport, wanting to assist my friend's suicide. There's my friend, an EU citizen and resident, experiencing a severe reduction in quality of life after a vehicular accident. We're both in our twenties.

At the time that my friend's parents and I secured our respective legal permissions to make decisions for my friend, they were decidedly unable to make decisions for themself. They are now conscious again, alert to time and space, and able to communicate, and are quite clear in expressing that they would like to end their life.

My friend was previously an employee in the United States, and received a large insurance payout that accumulates monthly in their American bank account. When they moved home after their accident, their parents gave me power of attorney in the United States to be able to access their accounts and transfer the payout, and tie up other loose ends like ending their lease. Because I understand Swiss laws regarding assisted suicide require the assistant's motives to be unselfish, I plan to transfer power of attorney to someone else first, so there is no suggestion that I am financially benefitting from their passing.

A few months from now, we plan to travel to Switzerland together, where my friend will legally end their life. They reside with their parents now, and their parents secured some legal rights over their medical decision making in their country of origin when they were previously comatose, but their parents are unaware of our plans and would probably not provide permission if they knew. We are not clear exactly what decision making powers they have in my friend's country of origin, and we do not want to ask for clarification because it may tip them off. Our current plan is to remove them from their parents' home discreetly and hire a driver to bring us by car to Switzerland. There, I plan to acquire a controlled substance, one that creates an overwhelmingly pleasant feeling, and prepare a syringe for my friend, who will them inject themself.

We do not plan to solicit help from a non-profit or other org that offers help with assisted suicide; it will be just us in a remote location with a pretty view. After it is done, I plan to contact local authorities and provide receipts of our chats and maybe a pre-recorded statement from my friend, to verify that this was an assisted suicide, and neither an accidental overdose nor a murder. I am prepared to pay the likely fine associated with first-time possession of the substance we will use.

I want to know how I can resolve the legal aftermath as quickly and painlessly as possible, so I can focus on updating my friend's family and our friend group next. I also want to know if there are any other important considerations I have missed. Any advice is much appreciated, thank you.

Location : Germany

Hi,

I really need some advice on what to do.

So around two years ago I (now 17) opened a paypal account under my name. I then changed it to my mother’s name for some reason. Back then you didn’t need ID to verify.

Everything’s been going good ever since recently. I bought something off of paypal and got into debt (around 20€).

I then went back and forth with paypal to send the money.

They failed two times to get it off my account themselves so I wanted to send it to them, which I cancelled when they told me they would try again. My bank then stopped them from doing so as the activity was ‘suspicious’.

My account is now restricted going through a security check where I have to confirm my bank, pay my debts and change my password.

Whenever I tried to pay my debts, it wouldn’t work because it said the card paying had to have the same name as the account, so I tried sending it from my moms account. (i just asked her if I could send myself on paypal some money as she thinks it’s legal fro me to have paypal)

The instant transfer didn’t work, so I did a normal transfer which takes a few days.

On friday though, they sent me an email saying if I don’t immediately pay my debts, they will contact a debt collection agency (inkassobüro in germany)

Now, I’ve thought about revealing my age and just using my ID to change my name so that they just close my account, though I’m really scared I’ll get sued for identity theft.

What are my options? Is it likely paypal will sue me?

Should I change my name or will that get me more trouble?

Countries involved: Belgium, Netherlands.

I had a valid train ticket purchased on NS international between Brussels and Breda, for the EuroCity train. This train got cancelled. I asked an OFFICIAL representative at the Brussels Central station what to do, he told me to just take the next train, showed the next train in his app, and reassured me several times that my ticket will be valid.

Well, the next train was a EuroStar train, which turns out to be a different company, operated by someone else, so they fined me for not having a valid ticket.

Do I have any chance to claim a refund of this fine from anyone? The fine is valid from EuroStars point of view, so I am thinking NS/SNBC who operates EuroCity? Since, their representative gave me wrong information, which does not comply with the EU railroad passenger rights if I understood it correctly?

Because as it stands and after talking to NS and the EuroStar conductors, they are all trying to shift the blame away from themselves. The NS customer support said I would need a written proof? But for what? If I go to an official personnel at a train station, should I now always ask for a written note that my ticket will be valid for the next train? And what sane person with a VALID ticket, would get on a train where they would get fined regardless on purpose?

Hello, I need some advice regarding a situation in Austria about a mini job (“geringfügig”) and the Austrian Health Insurance Fund (ÖGK).

I work as a substitute/jumper in childcare. I intentionally made sure to stay below the marginal employment income limit, so I only worked 33 hours.

Two days ago, I received a payment demand from ÖGK for €97.98 because I was apparently above the income limit.

The reason seems to be that my employer added a “pedagogical allowance” for 2 days, even though I normally work as a childcare substitute . I was never informed beforehand that this allowance would be added, so I had no way of knowing that my salary would become higher.

Important: I received the money before I received the payslip, so I could not check in advance how the payment was calculated or that this allowance was included.

My employer now says:

That they are obliged to always pay that, but they never did that just this one time. That it's my fault that I didn't pay attention to the border.( I didn’t notice it because in the same month they didn’t pay me to correct amount. They paid me less).

My problem is: How was I supposed to know that I would suddenly receive an extra allowance if I had never been informed about it and had not received it before for similar assignments?

What would you do in my situation?

• Pay and accept it?

• Contact the Chamber of Labour (Arbeiterkammer)?

• Call ÖGK?

• Is my employer legally right?

someone please help, im being harrassed by a solicitor by the name of Auer Witte Theil in Germany for a dating i started to sign up for but chose to not proceed with they are making a claim for membership payment they have written and emiled on number of occassions when i asked them to prove my membership and profile details they never give anything other than they dating site claims i signed up and agreed terms. they now threatening taking to court what should i do?

we're a European company expanding into a few EU countries and trying to figure out which route to go.

would really appreciate hearing from anyone who's been on either side of this.

Hello I hope everyone is doing great im writing to ask about more info about marriage ro get residency in EU

Location: Poland

Hi, I’m looking for general legal guidance regarding an issue with an online casino (Vavada) operating under a Curaçao licence.

I requested self-exclusion, but I was still able to access my account and deposit money for a period of time afterwards. Later the operator stated that my accounts were linked and restrictions were applied at user level, but the process and timing of this are not clear to me.

At the time, there were no proper self-exclusion tools available in the account, so everything had to be handled through support, which gave inconsistent information.

What I would like to understand is whether failures or inconsistencies in enforcing self-exclusion obligations can have any legal or regulatory consequences in the EU context (e.g. under consumer protection or gambling regulation principles), especially in relation to losses that occurred during that period.

I’m not looking for legal representation, just general insight into how situations like this are usually assessed.

Hi everyone,

I am a mother of two from Bulgaria, and I am reaching out because I feel trapped in a cycle I no longer know how to handle. I am seeking advice on how to legally fight back against predatory lenders that have turned a small mistake into a life-threatening crisis for my family.

The situation:

During my maternity leave, I was targeted by a predatory lending scheme regarding an old debt that I believe was already expired (statute-barred). In a state of panic and fear of losing my family’s stability, I took out small payday loans to cover it.

Now, these companies have inflated the debt to over €7,000 through astronomical fees and illegal interest rates. Despite my income being around €300 - €590/month (which is below the legal minimum wage in Bulgaria), private bailiffs have seized my accounts. I am struggling to buy basic necessities like bread and fuel.

My goal is not just to pay, but to fight. I want to challenge these illegal fees in court, but I am currently paralyzed because I cannot afford a specialized lawyer, and every cent I earn is being intercepted.

I am looking for guidance on:

1. Legal recourse: Does anyone have experience with EU consumer protection laws regarding "usury" or predatory lending in Eastern Europe?

2. NGOs: Are there any organizations that provide pro-bono (free) legal aid for mothers in financial distress within the EU?

3. Bailiff regulations: Is it legal for a bailiff to seize income that is below the national minimum subsistence level?

I am doing everything I can—working extra hours and cutting every possible expense—but it feels like I am fighting a machine designed to keep me poor. If anyone has been through something similar or knows of resources/funds that support legal battles against debt traps, please share your knowledge. I am open to any advice, resources, or support that could help me get my life back for the sake of my kids.

Thank you for listening to my story.

I'm currently pursuing my bachelor's at a U.S. university, and I am pretty sure that I want to move abroad permanently and become an EU citizen. However, I would also like to become a practicing lawyer in order to work in international human rights law cases, maybe with the ICC, ECHR, etc., or with NGOs that are providing support to victims of international human rights crises. Really want to have an impactful career that isn't just performative diplomacy too, and I am open to traveling to other places for short periods of time, but do want to have my home base in the EU.

After doing some research, I was considering obtaining a U.S. JD and then finding ways to become certified in an EU country (I am especially interested in living in France). However, this is a pretty long and expensive path (3 years JD, 2 years M1/M2, then 2 years before fully becoming a practicing lawyer in France). Because of this, I have been considering applying straight to an M1/M2 program in France following graduation to become certified in practicing law in an EU country much faster. However, I am slightly concerned that this path might not be the most efficient or realistic. Additionally, though I am pretty certain I want to live abroad permanently, a small part of me is worried about the lack of optionality pursuing an M1/M2 would provide me if I wanted to work in the U.S.

For additional consideration, by the time I am applying to legal programs, I will also have completed a +1 MPP program from the same U.S. university. I am also aware that U.S. universities offer 1-year LLMs for foreign lawyers that would like to qualify and practice law back in the U.S., and was thinking that might be a safe backup down the line to return to the U.S. if I decide that's for me. I was also considering the JD/M1 programs offered by Columbia Law and Cornell Law, but these are really expensive and I am not sure if they are worth it in my case if I am pretty sure I want to move to the EU, especially due to the EU being the hub for human rights careers working on international crises. As much as I enjoy school, I really only want to continue pursuing degrees that will be applicable to my career, which is why I worry that a J.D. would be an unnecessary investment. Would appreciate any insight/recommendations on what I should do, and any advice overall!

I’m based in Germany and ordered a Snapmaker (Order: SMEU2026****548).

The machine stopped working after the first use. I contacted support within the 14-day period and declared withdrawal.

Instead of processing the return, the seller:
– requested videos/photos repeatedly
– asked me to open and inspect hardware
– argued it could be user-caused
– refused to proceed without technical verification

After weeks, they offered a refund with:
– 10% restocking fee
– return shipping at my expense

From what I understand, withdrawal under EU law shouldn’t depend on defect analysis or include arbitrary deductions.

I’m mainly trying to understand:
Is this common with non-EU sellers, and what’s realistically enforceable in such cases?

Appreciate any insight.

we're a European company expanding into a few EU countries and trying to figure out which route to go, would really appreciate hearing from anyone who's been on either side of this.

Would there be any legal consequences if I had someone sends vegetable seeds from Russia & south east Asia into the uk? Before anyone asks yes it is actually vegetables not cannabis, kratom ect

Hi everyone,

I’m looking for some perspective on a complex ESOP/Employment situation involving two different EU jurisdictions.

Context:
Job contract is French with french subsidary/entity of the company, ESOP contract is with the german entity.
Tenure is nearly 4 years.
Termination is employee initiated rupture conventionnelle (mutual agreement termination under French law).

Legal Setup:

Employment Contract (French Law): Included a non-compete clause. Upon my departure, the company explicitly did not trigger the non-compete. Therefore, I received no non-compete indemnity/compensation.

ESOP Agreement (German Law): Governed by German law. It contains a "Bad Leaver" clause stating that if the employee join a competitor within 2 years of leaving. And for "Bad Leaver" all options (including vested ones) are forfeited without consideration.

In the termination documents, there is a document stating the ESOPs I vested. It doesn't mention good or bad leaver.

Conflict:
I am about to join a new company in a similar domain/business about 5 months after my departure. When I asked HR for confirmation that my vested ESOPs are safe, they replied: they cannot provide confirmation now; and will assess if it's a Bad Leaver event at the time of an Exit Event.

My Questions:

1. Enforceability of Vested Forfeiture (Germany): I’ve heard about a March 2025 German Federal Labour Court (BAG) ruling (10 AZR 67/24). Can it be used to claim forfeiting vested equity for joining a competitor is an "unreasonable disadvantage" (§ 307 BGB)? Does this apply here even if the contract was signed earlier (2021)?
2. The "Hidden" Non-Compete (France): Since my French job termination waived the non-compete to avoid paying me, can the German parent company legally use the ESOP as a "shadow non-compete" to block me for free?
3. Is it legal for them to refuse to tell me my status now? Leaving me in "limbo" for years until an Exit event if I join the new company. This feels like an unlawful barrier to my professional mobility.

Any advice or suggestion are appreciated.

I’m looking for examples or general principles about what makes a lawful “positive action” measure versus unlawful discrimination, not advice on a specific cases

The Context: A patient is undergoing SOT (Supportive Oligonucleotide Technique) therapy with a laboratory (HQ in Switzerland, processing lab in Greece). This is a "personalized" therapy where an miRNA preparation is created based specifically on the patient's own Circulating Tumor Cells (CTCs).

The patient is also developing a personalized neoantigen cancer vaccine with a separate team. For clinical safety and treatment coordination, the oncology team needs to know the genetic targets of the SOT therapy (the biomarkers/genes being silenced).

The Conflict: The lab has declined to disclose the specific gene names or targets, citing the miRNA sequence as a proprietary "trade secret."

The Technical Question: In the context of personalized medicine—where the "product" is derived entirely from the patient’s own unique biological data—how is the balance typically struck between Article 15 (Right of Access) and Article 15(4) (Rights of others/Trade Secrets)?

1. Does the identity of a genetic target (the "what") qualify as personal health data, even if the synthetic sequence used to hit that target (the "how") is a trade secret?
2. Has anyone seen DPA guidance or case law regarding "unredactable" health data when it is required for the safety of concurrent medical treatments?
3. What are the standard compliance escalations when a lab remains silent on a DSAR in a time-critical medical situation?

Personal Note: I submitted a formal DSAR today but haven't had any engagement from the lab for over two weeks on previous inquiries. For a late-stage cancer patient, every day is critical. Navigating this administrative "black hole" while fighting the disease is incredibly taxing, and I'm trying to understand the regulatory landscape to ensure we get the data needed for vaccine in time.

Thank you for any info you could share regarding the matter.

I'm disputing an invoice in another country, not EU, for around €8000. My complaint is based on their dishonest business practices and shoddy work. How likely is a company to file for collections here in the Netherlands for an invoice, and be successful? Would I have any legal recourse here in NL to fight it? Are there actions I should consider for my own protection, aside from sucking it up and paying the invoice?

Location: Besançon, France

I am reaching out to this community for some urgent family guidance.

My sibling is currently navigating a mental health crisis in France (specifically the Besançon area).They had a severe psychotic episode on 4/12, and are scheduled to be transferred to the Novillars hospital on 4/20 (right now they are in the emergency room in a university hospital) .

We are American, and have had difficulty getting answers to our questions. Will my sibling be able to leave the Novillars hospital when they want? Is there a way to require them to stay in the Novillars hospital against their will only if they are showing signs of psychosis? Is there a way to specify multiple people as my sibling's Guardian (their French partner, and parents)?

If you can help, please comment !

I know this is a european only space but there's no r/legaIadvicemorocco unfortunatly, so im trying my chances here, so I recently changed my family name in my birth country (Belgium), but now my ID and moroccan ID mismatch, I've heard that changing your name in Morocco is really hard and requires a strong reason. But if I argue that the mismatch causes administrative inconsistency, and causes for confusion at the border bc of two different surnames, does that not suffice as a strong reason? Did anyone have a similar situation or legal knowledge to answer this question? I don't feel like going to the consulate just to be rejected immediately + moroccan administration s*cks ahh, last time i went they p*ssed me off