Random question, assuming that i had my first and only sexual encounter with a female escort in the philippines (from an online site, they said that they were tested for stds) and after that i did not experience any common symptoms in 2 years (flu-like chills/fever, swollen lymph nodes, sore throat, rash, and fatigue) but only oral thrash after a day after the encounter.
Edit: The thing is that the escort said that the std test was partially true in a sense that the STD tests were commonly on syphilis, gonorrhea, etc.. and a PAP Smear (i did not ask if it included HIV)
The thing is that at that time, i did not brush my teeth but i also don't remember if i have any open sores or gum damage at the time of contact
In the time after the contact, there was no hiv test done at all. Just googled and it said that the risk was so low, it's just good as a negative, or so i thought.
After 2 years i suddenly got fungal infection on all toenails on both my feet (white superficial onychomycosis). No rashes, swollen glands, fever or anything within the timeline...
I'm about to go take my first HIV Test. May i kindly ask what are my chances of contracting hiv with a scenario like mine? thank you for answering.
(I was young and stupid when i did this, that's definitely on me)
Edit: Gave more information about place and communication with the escort regarding std tests they have done.