u/priestoferis

Ma az EON honlapján tanultam meg, hogy vannak olyan weboldalak, ami új jelszó megadásánál nem engedélyezi a paste-t. Sehogy. Se jobbklikk paste, se bitwarden autofill, se javascript disable (akkor megjelenik a pötty, de valahogy még úgy is tudja, hogy nem gépeltem be).

MIÉRT??? Tényleg azt akarjátok, hogy random123. legyen a jelszavam?

Most fogok írni nekik egy levelet, kíváncsi vagyok mi lesz a válasz.

EDIT:

NIST-ben van ilyen explicit:

https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-63b.pdf

> Verifiers SHOULD permit claimants to use “paste” functionality when entering a memorized secret. This facilitates the use of password managers, which are widely used and in many cases increase the likelihood that users will choose stronger memorized secrets.

Nem találom, hogy ezt a NIS2-ből hogy lehet direktben levezetni egyelőre.

We have a saying in Hungary "Több is veszett Mohácsnál!" (lit. "More was lost at Mohács" implying your current plight is not that big of a deal really. And well, really a lot was lost that day, but more so in the following ~150 years of wars in the middle of the country.

I was wondering if we have any hardish numbers on the amount of written documents that were destroyed during this time and how does the amount of surviving medieval documents compare to places like England and France?

I'm currently in Puglia, southern Italy, and as I skimmed through it's history in wikipedia, it reminded me that Roma folded quite a few tribes speaking different languages (allthough I would assume most of these were indo-european themselves). Obviously, southern Italy was heavily/completely(?) romanized, while provinces acquired later maybe less so.

My question is: can the influence of pre-roman languages of people conquered by Rome be attested in the various romance languages currently spoken or were these complete irradicated and all of the extant romance languages derive directly from the same Vulgar Latin?

I've just read the question about [dialects and languages in Italy](https://www.reddit.com/r/asklinguistics/s/HRc328xU3m) and wondered if I am a victim of a similar bias in the other direction.

So compared to Italy or Germany it seems to me that any dialect of Hungarian I know is easily understandable to me, with maybe the exception of the Csángó dialect on the other side of the Carpathians. I've also read that historically at least one medieval traveller mentioned that the language in the Kingdom of Hungary was surprisingly uniform.

Maybe a comparison to France is more on par, since the area was _mostly_ under a single administration until modern times, but for a fair comparison you'd probably need to control for population.

So, how true is that Hungarian is surprisingly uniform?

Recently someone posted of an android app with support for the new sync protocol, but I can't find it. Anyone have a link? May have been another sub though...