u/dirt_devil_696

I've always taken CPA so my testosterone levels have always been in the female range since starting HRT. I can understand how someone who's taking antiandrogens that only block receptors and don't actually decrease the testosterone in your body, could benefit from orchiectomy in terms of feminization. In my case though is there any possibility of that happening or I shouldn't expect much since the testosterone I'll have in my body would be the same?

I don't think I have ever had a separate mound(T4). I had something similar, it looked like puffy areolas, but it was not significant nor was it present on both my breasts. That makes understanding if I'm still at t3 or have reached t5 already difficult