NBME 11 Section 2 Question 46 - what does "most appropriate next step" REALLY mean?
I'm getting confused on the NBME approach to the most appropriate next step questions. In this example, a 6 mo baby has chronic constipation with no stool in the rectal vault. The answer was to get a rectal manometry.
I figured getting a quick blood TSH testing to rule out a possible hormonal deficiency before more invasive testing was more appropriate than rectal manometry (which sounded invasive to me)... how should I be approaching these kinds of questions?