u/codleov

If this is accurate, what would the author have said instead if they wanted to communicate the idea that the Word's presence was not continuing from the past until the point in being talked about? Is that even an option?

EDIT: Just so it's clear, this question is about the grammar of the original Greek version of the passage, not necessarily a theological question (even though theological implications may come from it).

If this is accurate, what would the author have said instead if they wanted to communicate the idea that the Word's presence was not continuing from the past until the point in being talked about? Is that even an option?