u/Limp-Entertainer5418

▲ 24 r/exjw

Has anyone ACTUALLY succeeded in waking up their family?

A girl can dream. I want my mum to wake up… but at the same time, it’s her entire life. Her social life, JW. Her family, JW. She is retired. Had a rough childhood so she’s prone to black and white thinking.

She admits she can’t explain the 144,000 doctrine and why some people can’t partake in the memorial.

She simply says “even if I can’t explain it, I feel like it’s right”

She insists she doesn’t believe everything the GB mandates but at the same time insists “even if it’s not the truth, at least I’ve lived a good life”

Obviously that’s not a truth claim, that’s a value claim.

Do people like this even wake up? Or are their claws too deep?

She also said if I ever get married in an Orthodox Church she wouldn’t come to my wedding, knowing she is my only parent still alive lol.

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u/Limp-Entertainer5418 — 11 hours ago

"Abstain from blood" should only apply to anointed, as per Acts 15.

One thing that seems to get skipped over in discussions about Acts of the Apostles 15 is who the instruction is actually addressed to.

1. The instructions are for Gentile believers with Holy Spirit

Before the command is even given, the chapter makes it clear.

  • God gave the Holy Spirit to the Gentiles (v.8)
  • He was choosing a people for His name from among them (v.14)

So the audience receiving the letter is:

  • Gentile believers
  • who have received the Holy Spirit
  • i.e. fully accepted, covenant Christians

There’s no second-tier group or distinction between “anointed” and “other sheep.” Clearly, it's just one unified group.

So logically, if someone wants to treat Acts 15 as a binding command:

Wouldn’t it only apply to that same group?

2. Letter of the law vs. Spirit of the law

Now, setting that aside for a second, look at what the command actually includes:

  • food sacrificed to idols
  • blood
  • meat of strangled animals

This is clearly a food-related framework tied to pagan practices and Jewish sensitivities.

Blood is listed alongside dietary issues, not as some standalone medical principle.

Of course, blood transfusions weren’t even a concept.

But let’s say, for argument’s sake, they were.

JW always say:

"if your doctor told you to abstain from alcohol, you would not inject it just because it's technically not same as drinking it. It's still consumption."

Sure.

If your doctor tells you to abstain from alcohol (ethanol), do you:

  • refuse to drink it? yes (indulging in effects of ethanol)
  • refuse to inject it? yes (indulging in effects of ethanol)
  • refuse to use it for sanitsation in a medical context? obviously not.

Why?

Isopropyl alcohol is different to ethanol. It's not meant for "consumption," it's an antiseptic.

But, it's still alcohol.

This is the difference between the principle behind the instruction, not just the literal wording.

The command is about consumption and behaviour, not blocking every possible use in every context.

3. The Rule vs The Principle

  • Principles are viewed as the "thinking" of Jehovah God. They are deemed essential for maturing Christians, helping them understand how to act in a way that pleases God across many different situations.

  • Rules (or Laws) are specific instructions or commandments designed for safety or to guide in particular situations, such as the command to abstain from blood.

The rule: to abstain from blood in all contexts.

The principle: blood represents life, and life is sacred (Leviticus 17:11)

  • Using blood to preserve life aligns with the principle
  • Refusing it and losing life to seems like a paradox of the rule

It turns the symbol of life into something that can actually cost a life.

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If Jesus already “came” in 1914, why do JW still observe the Memorial?

In 1 Corinthians 11:26 it says:

“For whenever you eat this loaf and drink this cup, you keep proclaiming the death of the Lord, until he comes.” (NWT)

Now, Witnesses teach that Second Coming of Christ already happened—just invisibly—in 1914.

Not a physical return, but a “presence” where Christ began ruling in heaven.

So here’s the tension I can’t resolve:

The verse ties the act of partaking (the Memorial) to a time boundary: until he comes

But their doctrine says: he already came (over a century ago)

Yet the Memorial is still observed every year.

From a plain reading, that sounds like:

Either “coming” hasn’t happened yet (so the practice continues),

Or “coming” has happened, in which case the stated purpose of continuing the ritual becomes unclear.

I know the usual explanation is that “coming” (arrival) and “presence” (ongoing rule) are distinct phases—but even then, the wording in 1 Corinthians seems to refer to a future event relative to the practice, not something already fulfilled.

So I’m curious how people reconcile this without just redefining terms mid-way:

If the “coming” already happened in 1914, what exactly are they still waiting for in this verse?

If the Memorial is still proclaiming his death “until he comes,” doesn’t continuing it imply he hasn’t come yet?

Is there a consistent reading here, or does this only work if you accept the 1914 framework first and reinterpret the verse afterward?

Trying to understand if there’s a clean, text-first explanation that doesn’t rely on circular reasoning.

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u/Limp-Entertainer5418 — 2 days ago

We all KNOW 144k is not literal, right? Here's why.

I’ve been looking into the 144k discussion again, and I noticed an article mention John saw the 144,000 and saw a great crowd (paragraph 7.)

What shocked me is that is NOT what the text in Revelation 7:4 says:

NWT "And I heard the number of those who were sealed, 144,000,+ sealed out of every tribe of the sons of Israel:+"

Then Rev 7:9 says:

"After this I saw, and look! a great crowd"

To say John saw both groups is a misrepresentation of the Bible.

Regardless, we have always understood this to represent two separate groups.

However, this misses something pretty basic about how the Bible (and ancient literature in general) actually communicates.

There’s a really consistent pattern across Scripture and even outside of it:

Hearing → then seeing.

Not as two separate things, but as two ways of perceiving the same reality.

1. "Hear and then see" is a known pattern in ancient literature

You hear something first (a promise, prophecy, declaration), and then later you see it play out.

  • God speaks → time passes → reality unfolds
  • Hearing = expectation
  • Seeing = confirmation

The “seeing” isn’t a second, separate thing.

It’s the fulfillment of what was already declared.

Same thing shows up in Greek/oral culture too.

You hear the oracle, then later you see it fulfilled (often in a way you didn’t expect). Even in theatre, the audience hears the story and sees it embodied as one narrative, just experienced in two dimensions.

2. The Bible itself uses this pattern constantly

“Eyes that see and ears that hear” refers to the spiritual understanding. They’re talking about one group responding properly to truth (Matthew 13) Jesus uses this phrase to contrast his followers with those who hear, but do not understand, or see, but do not perceive.

An echo of "Eyes that see and ears that hear" (Isaiah 6:9-10) referring to the same spiritual understanding and perception, often used in the Bible to contrast those who understand God’s message with those whose hearts are hardened.

And more importantly, Revelation itself uses this exact structure internally.

  • Revelation 5: John hears about the Lion of Judah
  • Then he sees a Lamb

No one reads that and says “Ah yes, two completely separate beings.”

It’s clearly one reality described in two ways:

  • what is announced
  • what is revealed

3. So what’s happening in Revelation 7?

  • v4: “I heard the number… 144,000”
  • v9: “After this I looked, and behold, a great multitude…”

The default assumption seems to be:

Hearing = one group
Seeing = a completely different group

But that’s actually not how this pattern works anywhere else.

If we stay consistent with how Scripture already operates, a more natural reading is:

  • The 144,000 = the defined, symbolic, “counted” description (heard)
  • The great multitude = the same group as it appears in reality (seen), beyond human limitation

I’m not saying “this definitively proves it’s one group.”

Just that the text itself doesn’t demand a two-group reading.

And the literary pattern actually leans the other way.

At minimum, it weakens the idea that Revelation 7 is clearly teaching two distinct classes.

But even if you set that aside, there are a few internal tensions in Revelation itself that make the standard “144k = the ruling heavenly class” interpretation feel… not as clean as it’s often presented.

4. Revelation uses the same "144" numerical pattern symbolically

We are consistently told "the number is too specific to be symbolic," but here's why that doesn't hold.

Revelation is full of highly structured numbers:

  • 12 tribes
  • 12 apostles
  • 24 elders (12 × 2)
  • 144,000 (12 × 12 × 1,000)
  • 144 cubits (city wall measurement)

That’s a deliberately repeated patterned (Rev 1:1 literally says "presented in signs")

Then you get to Revelation 21:

  • The New Jerusalem is described with precise measurements
  • The wall is 144 cubits
  • Everything is built on multiples of 12

And then… in the same vision (v22), you’re told:

there is no temple in the city.

So the vision gives you extremely detailed measurements... and then immediately undercuts literalism by saying the temple isn’t even physically there.

Bonus Round: The 144k are never actually shown on thrones

When Revelation explicitly shows people on thrones, it’s very specific:

  • The 24 elders are seated on thrones (Revelation 11:16)
  • Later, thrones are mentioned again in Revelation 20:4

But the 144,000 are never directly described as sitting on thrones.

If they’re supposed to be the same ruling class as the 24 elders**,** it’s a bit odd that the imagery never overlaps clearly. Again, this doesn't prove anything. It just makes it harder to support an already obvious non-literal number.

If the 24 elders are a "symbolic number" to represent the 144,000 - how we can be sure it's conversely not a literal number and 144,000 is symbolic?

Surely "24" is more aligned with a "little flock" than hundreds of thousands?

If anything, the most consistent reading across the whole book is: Revelation communicates in patterns, not headcounts.

Is there any tangible reason to believe this number MUST be literal? I am very open to discussion based on scripture.

u/Limp-Entertainer5418 — 3 days ago