My partner tonight had this in a men's league game he played in - asked this of his fellow umpires and received a 50/50 split.
R2, 0 out. Ball hit to the hole and R2 was going with the pitch. F6 backhanded and realized BR was going to beat the throw, feinted towards first and threw towards third. The ball went out of play. At the time the throw, R2 already rounded 3rd base and BR made it to first.
R2 scored, that is undisputed. If you're umpiring, do you consider the feint an act and place BR at 3rd, or do you consider the feint nothing at all and place BR at 2nd as the throw was the first action?
Thank you all for your time. My answer below:
Based off OBR 5.06 (b) (4) (G), the throw is the first action. Based off this ruling, R2 scores and BR is placed at 2nd base.