Throwaway account, just in case.
I was fired from a job two days short of two years’ service. Contract was terminated immediately, and I was given 3 months’ pay.
Here is a timeline of events:
15 March 2024 - joined company
Appraisal #1. April 2025. Fine. No warnings. No mention of underperformance.
Appraisal #2 scheduled for Feb 2026. (Rescheduled 8 times by company, 2 times by me). Never happened.
13 March 2026. Contract terminated with immediate effect. Given three months’ pay (my notice period was three months). Written letter cites “ongoing performance concerns” as reason for termination. This was the first time anyone had mentioned performance concerns to me.
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My questions are:
I believe that I get 1 week statutory notice each year. So, being fired two days before two years’ service, I think I might actually have two years and five days service?
That would mean that to fire me for “ongoing performance concerns” would not be fair without going through some sort of performance review / plan.
Do I have a case for unfair dismissal, and if so what should I be asking for?
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With regard to PILON, my contract states:
“Instead of requiring you to work during your notice period (or any remaining part of it) the Employer may at its sole and absolute discretion choose to terminate your employment immediately and pay a sum equivalent to your gross basic salary (less appropriate PAYE deductions) in lieu of your notice period (or the remaining part of it) only. For the avoidance of any doubt, if the Employer exercises its discretion under this Clause, you shall not be entitled to any benefits or payment in lieu of benefits in respect of your notice period nor to any additional payment in respect of holiday which, but for the termination of your employment, would have accrued.“
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