▲ 7 r/asklinguistics
On reading about Old Korean, I saw that it lacked any fortis-lenis distinction, only having one series of plosives. However, we see now that Modern Korean has a three-way distinction (though I believe it's in the process of being replaced with tone?) with plain, aspirated and tense. It seems like the debate on how these came about in Korean is ongoing, but Chinese seems to have been a strong influence. Otherwise, do we have examples in any other languages of how a plain-aspirated distinction evolves internally from a single series of plosives?
u/Express_Knowledge_86 — 13 days ago