u/Eurasian_Guy97

The widely accepted definition of lust is "objectification", with the proposition in mind that "sexual desire" on the other hand is "noticing a woman as beautiful".

But we know that the Greek word for lust: epithumeó means to "desire" or "long for" or "crave".

With this said, if a man wanted to date a woman, wouldn't he be allowed to desire her without objectification?

What if a person first notices another man's wife as beautiful?

The person then fantasises about having her as his wife, without objectification or jealousy. He possibly even imagines having relations with her consensually, again without objectification.

The fantasiser doesn't intend adultery towards the wife in the fantasy.

Do you see what I'm saying?

Is this scenario theoretically acceptable?

What about thinking this way about a celebrity whom I'll never meet, whom I don't intend ill towards the husband of, let alone not being able to commit the act of adultery with?