u/Empty_Drummer9827

The number of bijective functions f:Z—>Z such that f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y) for all x, y belongs to Z, is?

so i just thought f(x)=nx, for any n whatsoever.

and since infinitely many values of n can satisfy it, i marked my answer as infinitely many.

But the answer given was two.

Where did i go wrong?

reddit.com
u/Empty_Drummer9827 — 4 days ago