Hi everyone, independent researcher here, no institutional affiliation. Just uploaded a quantitative EDA on the Variance Risk Premium in Nifty 50 options to SSRN & Substack (for a compact read).
The paper uses Intraday-NIFTY options data from Aug 2022 to Mar 2026 to study the structural gap between ATM implied volatility and Yang-Zhang realized volatility across VIX regimes, estimator choice, transaction costs, and distributional structure. The most uncomfortable finding is a full epoch inversion in 2026 - mean VRP of -4.63 vol points, wish to know how much of it do you think attributes to the weakness in the Indian Markets and Global news flow.
Specific things I want pulled apart:
- The transaction cost model uses a static 3× round-trip multiplier. The real question is whether band-based delta hedging, re-hedging only when delta drifts outside a tolerance band, materially changes the net VRP capture across VIX regimes, and whether there's a cleaner way to model this without a full simulation
- The IV-RV correlation is only 0.5636, nearly half the variation is independent. The paper flags this but doesn't resolve what drives the decoupling. Is there a standard decomposition approach for separating global VIX co-movement from domestic microstructure effects?
- The paper measures VRP at ATM only. How much of what's being measured is actually skew risk premium sitting in the OTM put wing rather than a true variance premium at the money?
No trading claims anywhere in the paper. Pure EDA. Reference list is still thin, Carr & Wu (2009), Bollerslev, Tauchen & Zhou (2009), Yang & Zhang (2000), so if there's literature I've clearly missed on Indian derivatives or emerging market VRP, I'd want to know.
SSRN: https://ssrn.com/abstract=6530119
DM if you want to connect.