Defense for Christ's divinity.
"Me" would argue that Greek grammar (two articular nouns with one possessive) directly identifies Jesus as "my Lord and my God". In John 20:28, the phrase "My Lord and my God" is a single, direct address to Jesus, not a separation of Jesus from a dwelling Father. While McClellan, a scholar of the Bible and religion, argues that the Gospel of John does not present Jesus as God, this view is contrary to the broader scholarly consensus. The narrative presents Thomas's statement as a climactic confession of faith in the risen Jesus as both Lord and God.
"Opponent" it sounds like you’re trying to leverage Granville-Sharp, but the fact that each noun carries its own article as well as its own possessive pronoun (there are two, not just one) absolutely precludes that principle.
Help? Or am I just wrong lol