Daniel 7's son of Man- Divine Messiah or Israel?
(Edit: unfortunately, Truechristian doesn't allow external links so all citations have been removed)
Christians and jews have been debating for nearly 2000 years on whether if Daniel 7's son of man is Israel or a divine messiah. Interestingly enough, Rashi (one of rabbinical judaism's medieval pre-eminent rabbis) affirmed that it is a reference to THE MESSIAH:
>That is the King Messiah.
In this article, I will further lay out textual evidence that Daniel 7's son of man speaks of a divine being, and thus cannot be Israel.
Let's proceed to the text of Daniel 7:
>I saw in the night visions, and behold, with the clouds of heaven there came one like a son of man, and he came to the Ancient of Days and was presented before him. > >And to him was given dominion and glory and a kingdom, that all peoples, nations, and languages should serve him; his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom one that shall not be destroyed.
- according to JA Emerton , the cloud rider imagery was used 70 times in the Old Testament. 69/69 times outside of Daniel, it was used for God alone (see Isaiah 19:1).
- the word "serve" (pelach) was used internally in Daniel to refer to divine worship. See Daniel 3:12, 3:17, 3:18, 6:16 & 6:20.
The top two points destroys the notion that it's Israel. Just about no jew will use such highly-exalted terms to refer to his own people, or you are interpreting that ALL JEWS are "mini-gods". A major heresy lol.
Also, Daniel himself differentiates between "people of the most high" (Israel) from the son of Man:
>And the kingdom and the dominion and the greatness of the kingdoms under the whole heaven shall be given to the people of the saints of the Most High; his kingdom shall be an everlasting kingdom, and all dominions shall serve and obey him
In aramic, people of the saints of the most high is plural. Whereas his/him is singular. If Daniel's SOM is Israel, why the random shifting from the plural to the singular to refer to the same subject? That would be grammatically awkard.
So Daniel himself does not seem to think that the Son of Man is the same as "people of the most high"