u/BarelyCivil

I'm wondering if anyone has and information on why a PJP loaded in tension may utilize a resistance factor of 0.8 while a fillet weld loaded in tension utilizes a resistance factor 0.75?

I think this is probably related to the failure plane assumption of these welds but the commentary doesn't address the specific reason why.

I'm having a discussion with a colleague on what factor should be applied to a PJP with a reinforcing fillet weld loaded in tension. My stance is that we should defer to the more stringent 0.75 due to the assumed failure plane of this weld being different than what would be assumed for a PJP only.