u/Apprehensive_boy418

Hey everyone,

I’m hoping someone who’s gone through this before (or is more plugged into FIFA ticketing) can clarify the process for me.

I currently have 2 RTT (Right to Tickets) for a Round of 32 match. As far as I understand, RTTs still need to be converted into actual match tickets through FIFA closer to the tournament.

Here’s what’s confusing me:

The tournament is about a month away

I haven’t received any email yet from FIFA about:

when RTT conversion starts

how the seat assignment works

or any deadline to act

My FIFA ticketing account still only shows the RTTs, nothing about seat selection or ticket issuance

Questions I have:

When do RTTs typically get converted to actual tickets? Is this really last‑minute?

At what point should I actually start worrying if I still hear nothing?

I don’t want to miss a window just because FIFA emails went to spam or something.

Thanks in advance!

Hey everyone,

I’m hoping someone who’s gone through this before (or is more plugged into FIFA ticketing) can clarify the process for me.

I currently have 2 RTT (Right to Tickets) for a Round of 32 match for the 2026 World Cup. As far as I understand, RTTs still need to be converted into actual match tickets through FIFA closer to the tournament.

Here’s what’s confusing me:

The tournament is about a month away

I haven’t received any email yet from FIFA about:

when RTT conversion starts

how the seat assignment works

or any deadline to act

My FIFA ticketing account still only shows the RTTs, nothing about seat selection or ticket issuance

Questions I have:

When do RTTs typically get converted to actual tickets? Is this really last‑minute?

Is there supposed to be a separate email/invitation to convert RTTs, or does it just open up in the ticket portal one day?

Is seat location automatically assigned, or do you get any choice during conversion?

At what point should I actually start worrying if I still hear nothing?

I don’t want to miss a window just because FIFA emails went to spam or something.

Thanks in advance!

​

Hi all,

Looking for a sanity check from folks who’ve dealt with BLE models and hydrology updates.

Here’s my situation:

• I have a 1D steady‑flow HEC‑RAS BLE model that was built ~5 years ago

• Geometry and cross‑sections are unchanged

• I recently updated the HEC‑HMS model using current land cover and imperviousness

• I now have an updated design flow at the watershed outlet from HMS

• The original BLE RAS model applied steady flow at the most upstream cross‑section (standard steady‑flow setup)

In steady 1D RAS, I can only apply flows at flow change locations, and practically speaking that means the most upstream XS to run the model.

Question:

Is it acceptable/best practice to simply replace the old steady discharge with the updated HMS discharge at the same upstream flow change location, assuming that XS represents (or reasonably approximates) the watershed outlet?

I’m not changing geometry, not converting to unsteady, and not adding lateral inflows — just updating the magnitude of the inflow. Conceptually this seems consistent (same inflow location, improved hydrology), but I want to confirm this aligns with accepted BLE / HEC‑RAS practice and wouldn’t raise red flags in review.

Would appreciate thoughts from anyone who’s done BLE maintenance, FEMA work, or agency reviews.

Thanks in advance.