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NAVLE Practice Question — Porcine

During an acute outbreak of C. perfringens type C enteritis in neonatal piglets, which immediate intervention would be most effective for protecting unaffected piglets that have already been born?

A. Oral ampicillin administration to unaffected piglets

B. Administration of hyperimmune type C antitoxin within 2 hours of birth ✓

C. Vaccination of affected piglets with type C toxoid

D. Environmental application of quaternary ammonium disinfectants

E. Immediate weaning of unaffected piglets

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Correct Answer: B. Administration of hyperimmune type C antitoxin within 2 hours of birth

Explanation:

The correct answer is B. During an acute outbreak, administration of type C antitoxin (hyperimmune serum containing antibodies against beta toxin) provides immediate passive protection to at-risk piglets. When given within 2 hours of birth to piglets that have not yet developed clinical signs, antitoxin can provide complete protection against disease development.

The antitoxin provides immediate neutralization of beta toxin, preventing tissue damage even if the piglet has been exposed to C. perfringens type C. This is crucial because once clinical signs develop, treatment is largely ineffective due to the irreversible nature of the intestinal lesions.

Option A (oral ampicillin) can be used prophylactically and may help reduce bacterial proliferation, but it does not neutralize existing toxin and is less immediately effective than antitoxin.

Option C (vaccination of piglets) would not provide protection during an acute outbreak; vaccines require time to stimulate an immune response and neonates cannot mount effective active immunity rapidly enough.

Option D (disinfectants) helps reduce environmental contamination but does not protect currently at-risk piglets.

Option E (immediate weaning) would deprive piglets of colostral antibodies if the sow is vaccinated and would likely worsen outcomes.

For longer-term control, sow vaccination and improved hygiene are essential.

References: Merck Veterinary Manual - Clostridium perfringens Type C Enteritis in Pigs; Pig Progress - Clostridial Infection

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NAVLE Practice Question — Equine

A competition barn in California experiences an outbreak of vesicular stomatitis in August. One of the affected horses is a valuable show jumper scheduled to compete at an international event in Europe next month. The owner asks about the implications for international travel. Which statement most accurately addresses this situation?

A. International movement restrictions are unlikely because VS is endemic in Europe

B. The horse can travel after a single negative PCR test regardless of clinical status

C. VS status may prevent international movement until quarantine requirements are met and serologic testing is performed ✓

D. Vaccination against VS with a European-approved vaccine will permit immediate travel

E. Oral antibiotic treatment will clear the infection and allow travel within one week

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Correct Answer: C. VS status may prevent international movement until quarantine requirements are met and serologic testing is performed

Explanation:

Vesicular stomatitis has significant implications for international trade and animal movement. Although VS is no longer notifiable to WOAH, serologic testing is often required for transport of horses or semen from endemic areas or regions experiencing disease outbreaks. The horse would need to meet quarantine requirements, have no active lesions, and likely test negative on serologic or molecular tests before international movement would be permitted. Each importing country may have specific requirements.

Option A is incorrect because VS is not endemic in Europe; it occurs only in the Western Hemisphere naturally. Option B is incorrect because movement restrictions during outbreaks typically require quarantine periods and resolution of clinical signs, not just a single test. Option D is incorrect because there are no approved VS vaccines for horses in the U.S., and European vaccination requirements would not apply to an American horse. Option E is incorrect because VS is a viral disease that is not cleared by antibiotics.

References: WOAH Vesicular Stomatitis Standards (https://www.woah.org/app/uploads/2021/03/vesicular-stomatitis.pdf); Merck Veterinary Manual - VS Trade Implications (https://www.merckvetmanual.com/generalized-conditions/vesicular-stomatitis-in-large-animals/vesicular-stomatitis-in-large-animals).

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NAVLE Practice Question — Canine

An 8-year-old spayed female German Shepherd Dog is being evaluated for proteinuria identified on routine screening. Urine protein:creatinine ratio (UPC) is 2.8 (reference <0.5). Blood pressure measurement reveals a systolic pressure of 172 mmHg. BUN and creatinine are within normal limits. Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between hypertension and proteinuria in this patient is most accurate?

A. Hypertension is likely the primary cause of the proteinuria

B. Proteinuria and hypertension are unrelated findings

C. Treatment of hypertension will have no effect on proteinuria

D. ACE inhibitor therapy may reduce both blood pressure and proteinuria ✓

E. Proteinuria will resolve once blood pressure is normalized to <140 mmHg

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Correct Answer: D. ACE inhibitor therapy may reduce both blood pressure and proteinuria

Explanation:

ACE inhibitor therapy may reduce both blood pressure and proteinuria is the most accurate statement. This patient has both hypertension and significant proteinuria (UPC 2.8), and these conditions have a bidirectional relationship. ACE inhibitors provide dual benefits: they reduce systemic blood pressure through inhibition of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and reduce intraglomerular pressure by preferentially dilating efferent arterioles, thereby reducing proteinuria independent of their systemic antihypertensive effects.

Studies in dogs with chronic kidney disease have demonstrated that ACE inhibitors can significantly reduce proteinuria even in patients with only modest reductions in systemic blood pressure. This renoprotective effect is particularly important because proteinuria itself is an independent risk factor for progression of kidney disease.

Option A oversimplifies the relationship as proteinuria and hypertension often develop together in glomerular disease, with each potentially contributing to the other. Option B is incorrect as there is a well-documented association between hypertension and proteinuria in dogs. Option C is incorrect as controlling hypertension, particularly with ACE inhibitors, can reduce proteinuria. Option E is overly optimistic as proteinuria may persist even with normalized blood pressure, particularly if underlying glomerular disease is present.

Brown SA et al. Effects of the angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor benazepril in dogs with induced renal insufficiency. Am J Vet Res. 2003;64:321-327; Bacic A et al. Evaluation of albuminuria and its relationship with blood pressure in dogs with chronic kidney disease. Vet Clin Pathol. 2010;39:203-209

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NAVLE Practice Question — Equine

A 3-year-old male mule is presented for a breeding soundness examination because the owner hopes to use him for natural service. Testes are descended and of normal size, but semen evaluation shows azoospermia. Testicular histopathology reveals seminiferous tubules devoid of germ cells with only Sertoli cells present. What is the most likely explanation for the mule's sterility?

A. Absence of spermatogonia due to meiotic arrest from an unpaired chromosome complement ✓

B. Bilateral cryptorchidism

C. Heritable androgen insensitivity

D. Hermaphroditism

E. Inability to copulate

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Correct Answer: A. Absence of spermatogonia due to meiotic arrest from an unpaired chromosome complement

Explanation:

Mules (donkey × horse) have 63 chromosomes — an odd number that cannot form homologous pairs during meiosis. Spermatogenesis arrests at or before the spermatogonial stage, so testes contain Sertoli cells without germ cells and mules are essentially always sterile. The rare fertile "jennet mule" is a documented exception but extremely uncommon.

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NAVLE Practice Question — Bovine

A veterinarian reviews production records for a commercial beef cow–calf operation. Which of the following figures should prompt immediate investigation of a management or disease problem?

A. 12-month calving interval

B. 20% preweaning mortality ✓

C. 60-day calving season

D. 550-lb (249 kg) weaning weight

E. 950-lb (429 kg) yearling weight

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Correct Answer: B. 20% preweaning mortality

Explanation:

A 20% preweaning calf mortality rate is far above industry targets (typically 2–5%) and indicates a serious problem such as dystocia, neonatal scours, respiratory disease, or failure of passive transfer. A 12-month calving interval, tight 60-day calving window, and the reported weights are appropriate benchmarks.

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NAVLE Practice Question — Equine

A 10-year-old Quarter Horse gelding presents with an acute onset of severe, spontaneous epistaxis from both nostrils. The horse appears anxious with elevated heart rate. History reveals the horse had a similar but less severe episode of epistaxis two weeks ago that resolved spontaneously. Which diagnostic procedure should be performed with extreme caution in this patient and why?

A. Thoracic radiography due to risk of stress-induced hemorrhage

B. Upper airway endoscopy due to potential for initiating hemorrhage ✓

C. Transtracheal wash due to contamination risk

D. Arterial blood gas analysis due to coagulation concerns

E. Skull radiography due to sedation requirements

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Correct Answer: B. Upper airway endoscopy due to potential for initiating hemorrhage

Explanation:

Upper airway endoscopy should be performed with extreme caution because it has the potential to initiate or worsen hemorrhage in horses with guttural pouch mycosis. The clinical presentation of spontaneous, severe bilateral epistaxis with a history of a previous similar episode is highly suggestive of guttural pouch mycosis with arterial erosion. When the endoscope contacts or manipulates tissues near a compromised arterial wall, it can trigger massive hemorrhage. If guttural pouch mycosis is suspected based on history of epistaxis, preparation for immediate surgical intervention should be made before performing endoscopy. The endoscopy itself remains diagnostically important but must be approached cautiously with emergency surgical backup available.

Option A (thoracic radiography) is a non-invasive procedure without direct hemorrhage risk. Option C (transtracheal wash) does not directly access the guttural pouches. Option D (arterial blood gas) is minimally invasive and does not pose significant hemorrhage risk. Option E (skull radiography) is also non-invasive.

References: Hardy J, Léveillé R (2003) Diseases of the Guttural Pouches. Vet Clin North Am Equine Pract 19(1):123-158; Cadoré J et al (2017) Guttural pouch mycosis in horses: An intriguing and mysterious disease. Equine Vet Educ 31(2):75-79.

Image: Lepage OM. Guttural Pouch Mycosis: A Three-Step Therapeutic Approach. Vet Sci. 2024;11(1):41. PMC10820199. © The Author(s) 2024. Used for educational reference.

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NAVLE Practice Question — Feline

A 9-year-old neutered male cat that has been receiving long-term cyclosporine therapy following renal transplantation develops progressive weight loss, vomiting, and palpably enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes. Abdominal ultrasound confirms marked mesenteric lymphadenopathy. Fine needle aspirate of a lymph node reveals abundant macrophages containing numerous acid-fast bacilli. Which mycobacterial species should be strongly suspected given this clinical scenario?

A. Mycobacterium microti

B. Mycobacterium avium complex ✓

C. Mycobacterium lepraemurium

D. Mycobacterium smegmatis

E. Mycobacterium fortuitum

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Correct Answer: B. Mycobacterium avium complex

Explanation:

Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infection should be strongly suspected in immunocompromised cats, particularly those on long-term immunosuppressive therapy such as cyclosporine following organ transplantation. MAC easily disseminates and commonly produces visceral or systemic disease with gastrointestinal involvement including weight loss, mesenteric lymphadenopathy, intestinal thickening, diarrhea, and vomiting. In contrast, most mycobacterial infections in immunocompetent cats present primarily with cutaneous disease. The combination of immunosuppression, systemic signs, and visceral involvement makes MAC the most likely causative agent.

Option A (M. microti) typically causes cutaneous or respiratory disease in immunocompetent hunting cats. Option C (M. lepraemurium) causes localized cutaneous nodules (feline leprosy) and does not disseminate. Option D (M. smegmatis) and Option E (M. fortuitum) are rapidly growing non-tuberculous mycobacteria that typically cause localized infections, often panniculitis.

References: PMC - Disseminated Mycobacterium avium infection in a cat on long-term ciclosporin therapy https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC9373128/; ABCD Guidelines https://www.abcdcatsvets.org/guideline-for-mycobacterioses-in-cats/

Image: Teh A et al. Atypical presentation of disseminated mycobacteriosis due to Mycobacterium avium in an aged cat. Aust Vet J. 2025;103(3):121-126. PMC11879478. © The Author(s) 2024. Used for educational reference.

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NAVLE Practice Question — Canine

A 10-year-old female spayed German Shepherd presents with a 2-month history of progressive lameness in the right forelimb. Radiographs of the distal radius show a lesion characterized by cortical lysis, soft tissue swelling, and new bone formation with a sunburst periosteal pattern. The owner cannot afford CT imaging. Which radiographic finding, if present, would be MOST helpful in differentiating osteosarcoma from fungal osteomyelitis?

A. Presence of cortical lysis

B. Sunburst periosteal reaction

C. Joint space involvement or crossing ✓

D. Soft tissue swelling surrounding the lesion

E. Medullary bone opacity changes

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Correct Answer: C. Joint space involvement or crossing

Explanation:

Joint space involvement or crossing would be MOST helpful in differentiating osteosarcoma from fungal osteomyelitis. Osteosarcoma characteristically does NOT cross joint spaces to affect adjacent bones, while infectious processes (including fungal osteomyelitis from organisms like Blastomyces, Coccidioides, or Histoplasma) can extend across joints.

Both conditions can present with similar aggressive radiographic features including cortical lysis (Option A), periosteal reaction including sunburst patterns (Option B), soft tissue swelling (Option D), and medullary changes (Option E). These features indicate an aggressive bone process but cannot reliably distinguish between neoplastic and infectious etiologies.

Additional differentiating features may include:

• Fungal osteomyelitis often shows more diffuse involvement and may affect multiple bones or present with polyostotic lesions
• Geographic location matters for endemic mycoses
• Systemic signs (fever, lymphadenopathy, respiratory signs) are more common with fungal infection
• Cytology or histopathology remains essential for definitive diagnosis

This distinction is clinically important because treatment differs dramatically. OSA requires amputation and chemotherapy, while fungal osteomyelitis is treated with long-term antifungal therapy (often azoles for months).

References: Veterinary Practice - Diagnosis and Treatment of Canine Appendicular Osteosarcoma; Thrall DE - Textbook of Veterinary Diagnostic Radiology 7th ed; DVM360 - Out on a limb: osteosarcoma in dogs and cats.

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NAVLE Practice Question — Other Small Mammal

An owner brings in a 13-month-old Syrian hamster with a facial swelling that was lanced and drained by another veterinarian two weeks ago. Despite completing a 10-day course of oral antibiotics, the swelling has recurred in the same location. Physical examination reveals a firm, well-circumscribed 1 cm mass that does not appear fluctuant. The previous medical records indicate the original abscess was treated with amoxicillin-clavulanate. What is the MOST likely explanation for treatment failure?

A. Antibiotic resistance requiring culture and sensitivity

B. Inappropriate antibiotic selection causing inadequate treatment and gut flora disruption ✓

C. Underlying foreign body requiring surgical exploration

D. Neoplastic transformation of the abscess capsule

E. Insufficient drainage during initial treatment

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Correct Answer: B. Inappropriate antibiotic selection causing inadequate treatment and gut flora disruption

Explanation:

The most likely explanation for treatment failure is inappropriate antibiotic selection (Option B). Amoxicillin-clavulanate is a penicillin-based antibiotic that is contraindicated in hamsters due to the high risk of fatal antibiotic-associated enterocolitis caused by disruption of normal cecal flora and subsequent Clostridium difficile overgrowth.

Using amoxicillin-clavulanate in this hamster likely caused subclinical or mild gut flora disruption that may have compromised the hamster's overall health and immune response, contributing to treatment failure. Even if the hamster did not develop overt diarrhea or enterocolitis, the antibiotic would have been ineffective at achieving therapeutic goals while potentially causing harm.

Safe antibiotic choices for hamsters include enrofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and doxycycline. These should have been used instead of a penicillin-based antibiotic.

Option A (antibiotic resistance) is possible but less likely given that the fundamental issue is the inappropriate antibiotic class chosen. Option C (underlying foreign body) should be considered in recurrent abscesses but the history of inappropriate antibiotic use is the more probable primary cause. Option D (neoplastic transformation) is extremely rare and would not be expected at this timeframe. Option E (insufficient drainage) is possible but would typically present with a persistently fluctuant mass rather than a firm recurrence.

The recommended approach for this recurrent abscess would include surgical excision or repeat drainage with flushing, appropriate safe antibiotic therapy (enrofloxacin 10 mg/kg PO BID or trimethoprim-sulfa 30 mg/kg PO BID), and monitoring for signs of enterocolitis.

References: VIN - Pharmacotherapeutics in Exotic Small Mammals (https://www.vin.com/apputil/Project/DefaultAdv1.aspx?pId=11223&id=3859006&print=1); Merck Veterinary Manual - Hamsters (https://www.merckvetmanual.com/exotic-and-laboratory-animals/rodents/hamsters)

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NAVLE Practice Question — Bovine

A veterinarian successfully replaces a prolapsed uterus in a 7-year-old beef cow. After ensuring both uterine horns are fully extended by palpation and infusing warm saline, she administers 20 IU of oxytocin IV and 500 mL of 23% calcium borogluconate IV. The owner asks about prognosis for future breeding. Based on current evidence, which statement regarding subsequent reproductive performance is MOST accurate?

A. The cow has approximately 50% chance of conceiving in the next breeding season

B. The cow should be culled immediately due to hereditary nature of the condition

C. The cow will likely experience uterine prolapse at every subsequent calving

D. Uterine prolapse has no significant effect on subsequent fertility if properly treated ✓

E. Fertility is permanently impaired and artificial insemination is required

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Correct Answer: D. Uterine prolapse has no significant effect on subsequent fertility if properly treated

Explanation:

Uterine prolapse has no significant effect on subsequent fertility if properly treated is the most accurate statement. Research demonstrates that when a prolapsed uterus is promptly and properly replaced with minimal trauma, contamination, and necrosis, subsequent conception rates are similar to cows that did not experience prolapse. Additionally, uterine prolapse does NOT tend to recur at subsequent calvings, with studies showing recurrence rates below 1.5% in affected animals. Option A significantly underestimates fertility potential following successful treatment. Option C is incorrect because uterine prolapse, unlike vaginal prolapse, does not have a strong tendency to recur. Option B is incorrect because uterine prolapse is NOT considered hereditary in nature (unlike vaginal prolapse, which does have a genetic component). Option E is also incorrect as natural breeding can resume normally following recovery from metritis. Carluccio A et al. - Prevalence, survival, and subsequent fertility of dairy and beef cows with uterine prolapse, Acta Vet Hung 2020;68:91-94; Martin et al. - Treatment and survival of Norwegian cattle after uterine prolapse, Acta Vet Scand 2023.

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NAVLE Practice Question — Canine

A 4-year-old intact male Rottweiler presents with progressive anorexia, weight loss, and ascites. Ultrasound reveals marked hepatomegaly and mixed echogenicity. Biopsy confirms copper-associated hepatopathy. Which is the most appropriate treatment?

A. D-penicillamine copper chelation plus low-copper diet ✓

B. High-protein diet alone

C. Prednisone

D. Ursodiol alone

E. Antibiotics

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Correct Answer: A. D-penicillamine copper chelation plus low-copper diet

Explanation:

Copper-associated hepatopathy in predisposed breeds (Bedlington, Dalmatian, Labrador, Doberman, West Highland) is treated with copper chelation using D-penicillamine, a low-copper diet, and zinc as adjunct therapy. Monitor liver values and copper levels over time.

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NAVLE Practice Question — Feline

A 10-year-old male neutered domestic shorthair cat with EPI secondary to chronic pancreatitis develops polyuria, polydipsia, and hyperglycemia (blood glucose 385 mg/dL) during a follow-up examination. Fructosamine is 520 micromol/L (reference less than 340 micromol/L). The owner is concerned about managing multiple conditions. Which statement best explains the pathophysiologic relationship between these conditions?

A. The hyperglycemia is stress-induced and unrelated to the pancreatitis

B. Chronic pancreatitis destroyed both exocrine and endocrine pancreatic tissue ✓

C. EPI treatment with enzymes causes insulin resistance

D. The diabetes is type 1 and unrelated to the pancreatic disease

E. Cobalamin deficiency causes secondary hyperglycemia

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Correct Answer: B. Chronic pancreatitis destroyed both exocrine and endocrine pancreatic tissue

Explanation:

Chronic pancreatitis can destroy both exocrine and endocrine pancreatic tissue, resulting in concurrent exocrine pancreatic insufficiency and diabetes mellitus. This represents extensive pancreatic damage affecting both the acinar cells (producing digestive enzymes) and the islets of Langerhans (producing insulin). The elevated fructosamine confirms persistent hyperglycemia rather than stress-induced transient hyperglycemia. This is recognized as pancreatogenic (type 3c) diabetes.

Option A is incorrect because the elevated fructosamine excludes stress hyperglycemia. Option C is incorrect because pancreatic enzyme supplements do not cause insulin resistance. Option D is incorrect because the diabetes is directly related to the pancreatic pathology. Option E is incorrect because cobalamin deficiency does not cause hyperglycemia.

References: Cridge H et al. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in dogs and cats. JAVMA 2024;262(2):246-255 (https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/37944252/); Merck Veterinary Manual - EPI (https://www.msdvetmanual.com/digestive-system/the-exocrine-pancreas/exocrine-pancreatic-insufficiency-in-dogs-and-cats).

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NAVLE Practice Question — Porcine

Management factors play an important role in the severity of atrophic rhinitis outbreaks. Which environmental condition most significantly increases susceptibility to progressive atrophic rhinitis?

A. High ammonia levels from poor ventilation ✓

B. Low ambient temperature below 15°C

C. Direct sunlight exposure

D. Low humidity below 40%

E. Concrete flooring versus slatted floors

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Correct Answer: A. High ammonia levels from poor ventilation

Explanation:

High ammonia levels resulting from poor ventilation significantly increase susceptibility to progressive atrophic rhinitis. Ammonia and other irritating gases from urine and feces damage the nasal mucous membranes, making them more susceptible to colonization by Bordetella bronchiseptica and toxigenic Pasteurella multocida. Other contributing environmental factors include excessive dust with high bacterial counts, overstocking, substandard housing or sanitation, continuous use of facilities without proper cleaning, and failure to use all-in/all-out production methods.

Option B (low temperature) is less directly associated with atrophic rhinitis than air quality factors. Option C (sunlight exposure) is not a significant factor in respiratory disease susceptibility. Option D (low humidity) can affect respiratory health but is less important than irritant gas exposure. Option E (flooring type) affects joint and foot health more than respiratory disease.

References: Iowa State University Swine Disease Manual (https://webhost-dev.cvm.iastate.edu/swine-disease-manual/index-of-diseases/atrophic-rhinitis-progressive-atrophic-rhinitis/); Open Lib Minnesota - Pasteurella multocida (https://open.lib.umn.edu/swinedisease/chapter/pasteurella-multocida/).

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NAVLE Practice Question — Feline

An 8-week-old kitten presents for routine examination. A soft, reducible swelling is noted at the umbilicus. The kitten is otherwise healthy and growing normally. What is the most appropriate recommendation for this finding?

A. Emergency surgery within 24 hours

B. Immediate application of an abdominal binder

C. CT scan to evaluate for intestinal incarceration

D. Monitor until 3-4 months of age as many close spontaneously ✓

E. Euthanasia due to poor prognosis

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Correct Answer: D. Monitor until 3-4 months of age as many close spontaneously

Explanation:

Monitoring until 3-4 months of age is the most appropriate recommendation because many umbilical hernias in kittens close spontaneously. Umbilical hernias occur when the umbilical ring does not close properly following birth, and the natural growth and development of the kitten often results in closure without intervention. Since this hernia is reducible and the kitten is healthy, conservative monitoring is appropriate.Option A is incorrect because emergency surgery is not indicated for a small, reducible umbilical hernia without signs of incarceration. Option B is incorrect because abdominal binders are not effective treatment. Option C is incorrect because CT scanning is unnecessary for a clinically straightforward uncomplicated umbilical hernia. Option E is incorrect because umbilical hernias have an excellent prognosis.References: Hill's Pet - Cat Hernia Types and Treatments (https://www.hillspet.com/cat-care/healthcare/cat-hernia-types-and-treatments); Carolina Veterinary Specialists - Cat Hernia Surgery (https://www.winston-salem.carolinavet.com/site/pet-health-advice-blog/2023/05/30/cat-hernia-surgery).

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