Just after some advice to see whether it's worth pursuing something under UK law. Will keep as brief as possible.
I was married. My husband contracted an STI after he cheated. He discovered he had an STI. He discusses with his friend, together they come up with a plan. Husband is to take antibiotics for STI, wait two weeks, then have pre-planned intercourse with me. He will then get re-tested for the STI, if the results are positive again, he knows I have transmitted the STI. He will then get me some antibiotics and tell me they are for something else so I take them without knowing he has an STI, his secret stays safe, we move on.
Obviously I found out via his phone and we are now separated. Points to note:
- I did not end up contracting the STI.
- I have screenshot of the above conversation pre-planning everything.
- He tested positive for the STI and was prescribed antibiotics by GP so there will likely be paper evidence in medical records.
I have done a little bit of digging, and I now understand this is not informed consent, which although isn't great, isn't really worth pursuing legally. However, I believe this may fall under section 20 GBH 'intent to cause GBH', but can anyone who understands the CPS threshold or criminal law give any advice please on whether it's worth pursuing anything?