1st time home owners. Fannie mae conventional loan, for reference
Our offer on a home was accepted Saturday, and seller wants to close in 22 days.
Pre-disclosure sent to us to sign, which includes signing off on our loan application. However, loan application has my wife's school loans listed as debt... but she has a $0 payment IBR in effect. According to Fannie maes rules, as long as we can show via paperwork from her loan server that we have that IBR in effect, they will honor it. We tried to give mortgage loan people the proof no less than 3 times, and they waive it off. 'we shouldn't need that', they say.
With the school loans added, front end dti of 28% and back-end of 43%. Without... far better numbers.
Documents state we are signing that everything on the application is correct 'to the best of our knowledge'... which isnt true, it isnt accurate because they are listing debt that doesn't exist for this loan. So, we haven't signed yet (its been less than 24 hrs since they requested we sign).
Waiting on loan processor/coordinator to get back to us; sent in the $0 ibr proof again with other requested docs.
Am I being unreasonable? Is this something underwriting will 'fix', or am I wise to clear it up before it gets to them?
EDIT: Since people want to argue about $0 IBR being allowed, here is the link saying it is:
https://selling-guide.fanniemae.com/sel/b3-6-05/monthly-debt-obligations#P3441