u/-tehnik

Because it seems like the reflection on it stems from very basic considerations of the universality of thought in contrast to the particularity of sensible being. Certainly people already implicitly understood that language is (in part) about universals for millennia because they were users of language. So how come that in those millennia, with all the intellectuals all the cultures preceding Greece in the Archaic period didn't seem to think of something like this?

Of course any counter examples are welcome.