Question regarding pure being and pure nothing.
Hi all, I'm sorry for another level one question, I'm sure that's been asked many times, but I am having difficulty understanding a few of the inferences drawn when we consider Pure Being.
My current understanding is that indeterminate immediacy is so indeterminate that it shows itself to be nothing at all. And this "thing" which has no determinations, has produced a determination, namely proving itself to be nothing, thus the logical opposition is found in that the indeterminate immediacy has produced a determinate immediacy, namely nothing.
Now this seems immediately wrong to me. I haven't seen anyone else say this. And I'm reading Houglate, and he doesn't appear to either. I came to it because I don't understand how we can say pure being and pure nothing differ as logical opposites. As Houlgate insists, in the first volume of Hegel on Being, on page 144, it isn't a linguistic or "intention" issue that differentiates them, but is a logical one, they exclude anything else, including each other, but how would they show themselves to exclude each other if there's no distinction to do the excluding within themselves. How are pure being and pure nothing distinct?, if there is no difference between them to draw that conclusion? Please help me out here.